Did Mary (in the Bible) remain a virgin after giving birth to Jesus?
This question came to me back in November, but being so close to the Christmas season I thought it more timely to answer it in December. Many think this is a silly question, though in fact it is very important for two reasons. (1) Many individuals get quickly offended at the idea of Mary having sexual relations with Joseph, her husband; and (2) there is an entire philosophy of sexuality "behind the scenes" of this discussion of which most people are not aware.
Roman Catholic, Orthodox, and many Lutheran believers maintain what is called the Perpetual Virginity of Mary. In this view, Mary is said to have never actually married Joseph (the Bible speak of her only being betrothed, or engaged). They believe that after the birth of Jesus, Mary did not engage in sexual relations with Joseph and remained a virgin for the rest of her life.
A quick look at the Biblical evidence does not support this verse. Matthew 1:15 says, "But he had no union with her until she gave birth to a son. And he gave him the name Jesus." Here scripture maintains that her virginity was only temporary, and clearly indicates a future time when she would have marital relations with Joseph. John 7:5 and Matthew 13:55 also speak of (and Matthew even names) Jesus' brothers. Thus, after the birth of Jesus, Joseph and Mary finalized their marriage, engaged in sexual relations, and produced other children.
However, for the past 1,800 years many in the church have denied this biblical data. They maintain that "brothers" refers to others Christians (such as Paul uses the word "brothers" to denote fellow believers). However, in the context of the Gospels such a usage is unnatural and, frankly, impossible.
What is driving this "need" to maintain the virginity of Mary? To be honest, it is a very low view of sexuality. In the Early Church period, Tertullian claimed the "marriage and adultery ...are not intrinsically different, but only in the degree of their illegitimacy". In this period, the church fathers quickly rejected sexuality as base and immoral, and therefore glorified virginity and celibacy. By the fifth century, clerics were forbidden from marriage.
Augustine would commend married couples who abstained from sex. Jerome said that the only good of marriage was that it produced (through childbirth) virgins. Chrysostom said that Adam and Eve could not have had sexual relations before the Fall. Both Origen and Gregory of Nyssa agreed, and theorized how reproduction would have taken place if man never fell into sin. Origen believed the human race would have been propagated by some mysterious angelic manner, and Gregory suggested we would have reproduced by some manner of vegetation! The church would continually add days to the church calendar which prohibited married couples from engaging in sexual activity until the point where over half the year was prohibited. Those that reluctantly allowed marital relations strongly taught that it should be for the purpose of procreation only. Gregory the Great taught that desire for one's spouse sinfully befouls the sex act.
Of course, when one holds such a low opinion of sexuality, it will not do to have Mary, the mother of Jesus, engaging in such behavior. Their logic goes something like this:
A. Sex is shameful, morally base, and possibly even sinful.
B. Mary was a model of Christian virtue.
C. Therefore, Mary couldn't have engaged in sex.
Of course, no one disagrees with statement B. Statement C cannot be directly discredited because it is produced by statements A and B. Therefore, we must look at Statement A. Is sex shameful, morally base, and perhaps sinful?
Absolutely not! Sex was instituted by God from the very beginning. God commanded man to leave his father and mother and "cleave" (a sexual term) to his bride. Song of Solomon tells the story of two lovers who find deep pleasure in marital relations. Paul the apostle commands married couples to never forbid physical relations to one another. Love and holy sexuality abound throughout Scripture. Is sex a source of evil and temptation? Certainly, but the problem is not with sex, the problem is with sin. Sex is not inherently evil, though it is certainly corrupted by sin (as is everything).
Mary finished her engagement period to Joseph and eventually became his wife. They enjoyed each other, and bore the fruit of that pleasure (other children). Instead of viewing this as something that detracts from Mary's virtue, we should see it as something that adds to it.
Questions for Pastor Josh can be submitted via Email. "Ask the Pastor" is a feature in the monthly newsletter of Indian River Baptist Church. This blog republishes those Questions, along with others not selected for print publication.
This question came to me back in November, but being so close to the Christmas season I thought it more timely to answer it in December. Many think this is a silly question, though in fact it is very important for two reasons. (1) Many individuals get quickly offended at the idea of Mary having sexual relations with Joseph, her husband; and (2) there is an entire philosophy of sexuality "behind the scenes" of this discussion of which most people are not aware.
Roman Catholic, Orthodox, and many Lutheran believers maintain what is called the Perpetual Virginity of Mary. In this view, Mary is said to have never actually married Joseph (the Bible speak of her only being betrothed, or engaged). They believe that after the birth of Jesus, Mary did not engage in sexual relations with Joseph and remained a virgin for the rest of her life.
A quick look at the Biblical evidence does not support this verse. Matthew 1:15 says, "But he had no union with her until she gave birth to a son. And he gave him the name Jesus." Here scripture maintains that her virginity was only temporary, and clearly indicates a future time when she would have marital relations with Joseph. John 7:5 and Matthew 13:55 also speak of (and Matthew even names) Jesus' brothers. Thus, after the birth of Jesus, Joseph and Mary finalized their marriage, engaged in sexual relations, and produced other children.
However, for the past 1,800 years many in the church have denied this biblical data. They maintain that "brothers" refers to others Christians (such as Paul uses the word "brothers" to denote fellow believers). However, in the context of the Gospels such a usage is unnatural and, frankly, impossible.
What is driving this "need" to maintain the virginity of Mary? To be honest, it is a very low view of sexuality. In the Early Church period, Tertullian claimed the "marriage and adultery ...are not intrinsically different, but only in the degree of their illegitimacy". In this period, the church fathers quickly rejected sexuality as base and immoral, and therefore glorified virginity and celibacy. By the fifth century, clerics were forbidden from marriage.
Augustine would commend married couples who abstained from sex. Jerome said that the only good of marriage was that it produced (through childbirth) virgins. Chrysostom said that Adam and Eve could not have had sexual relations before the Fall. Both Origen and Gregory of Nyssa agreed, and theorized how reproduction would have taken place if man never fell into sin. Origen believed the human race would have been propagated by some mysterious angelic manner, and Gregory suggested we would have reproduced by some manner of vegetation! The church would continually add days to the church calendar which prohibited married couples from engaging in sexual activity until the point where over half the year was prohibited. Those that reluctantly allowed marital relations strongly taught that it should be for the purpose of procreation only. Gregory the Great taught that desire for one's spouse sinfully befouls the sex act.
Of course, when one holds such a low opinion of sexuality, it will not do to have Mary, the mother of Jesus, engaging in such behavior. Their logic goes something like this:
A. Sex is shameful, morally base, and possibly even sinful.
B. Mary was a model of Christian virtue.
C. Therefore, Mary couldn't have engaged in sex.
Of course, no one disagrees with statement B. Statement C cannot be directly discredited because it is produced by statements A and B. Therefore, we must look at Statement A. Is sex shameful, morally base, and perhaps sinful?
Absolutely not! Sex was instituted by God from the very beginning. God commanded man to leave his father and mother and "cleave" (a sexual term) to his bride. Song of Solomon tells the story of two lovers who find deep pleasure in marital relations. Paul the apostle commands married couples to never forbid physical relations to one another. Love and holy sexuality abound throughout Scripture. Is sex a source of evil and temptation? Certainly, but the problem is not with sex, the problem is with sin. Sex is not inherently evil, though it is certainly corrupted by sin (as is everything).
Mary finished her engagement period to Joseph and eventually became his wife. They enjoyed each other, and bore the fruit of that pleasure (other children). Instead of viewing this as something that detracts from Mary's virtue, we should see it as something that adds to it.
Questions for Pastor Josh can be submitted via Email. "Ask the Pastor" is a feature in the monthly newsletter of Indian River Baptist Church. This blog republishes those Questions, along with others not selected for print publication.
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