FAITH QUESTIONS: Why doesn't the Bible denounce slavery?

Question from Paul in Michigan
Why doesn't the Bible denounce slavery?

I have asked some fellow pastors to share their answers to the many questions I am receiving. The following answer comes from Pastor Jeremy Lee of Twinning Baptist Church. Pastor Lee is a frequent contributor to the NE Michigan Reformation Society blog.

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Pastor Lee's answer: There are many things I wish the Bible explicitly commanded or condemned. I would love for God to have said, “You shall not gamble. Do not drink any alcohol. The Pittsburgh Steelers are God’s team.” To my chagrin, he did not say those things.

It is true that the Bible does not explicitly condemn slavery but neither does it endorse or ignore slavery. It is not safe to assume that a lack of an explicit condemnation is an endorsement. Neither does regulating something imply an endorsement. If either of the above were true, one could not say divorce is sinful because the Bible never explicitly condemns divorce; instead of condemning it, slavery is regulated similarly to divorce in the Bible. Any argument that posits God’s approval of divorce on the premise that he regulated it instead of forbidding it is indefensible. Likewise, a similar argument with slavery is untenable. So, why did not God not explicitly condemn slavery? I do not know. However, it does not follow that slavery is approved because it is not condemned.

Rather than explicitly condemning slavery, the focus of the Bible, especially the Old Testament, is the regulation of slavery to protect slaves because slaves are made in the image of God; consequently, they are endowed with rights and dignity [1].

Consider the following regulations: the Old Testament limits the time a one could be enslaved. In addition, the source of slaves was also limited. Slaves were set free for mistreatment, were made part of the religious community through circumcision, and sometimes became the heir of their masters. All these laws concerning slavery are meant to protect the slave. This is because all men whether slave or free are made in the image of God; therefore, they have rights and dignity. God’s regulations regarding slavery affirm this. Yet, even the regulation of slavery does not entail an endorsement of it.

Ultimately the questioner wants to know is slavery sinful. I think the answer is yes for two reasons. First, slavery is inconsistent with the creation ordinances. In Matthew 19, Jesus based his argument against divorce on God’s original creation, which reveals God’s ideal plan for humanity. This ideal is called by theologians creation ordinances. God originally created Adam to have dominion over creation and to govern himself under the Law of God. Obviously, the ideal state of man is not enslavement to one another but freedom under the Law of God. Thus, slavery is inconsistent with the creation ordinances.

Secondly, slavery is inconsistent with Christian brotherly love. In his letter to Philemon, Paul does not directly command Philemon to release his slave Onesimus, but he clearly implies that he should on the basis that freeing him is consistent with Christian love [2]. In Philemon 21, Paul hints that he thinks Philemon will let Onesimus go free implying that slavery is inconsistent with Christian love. Since slavery is inconsistent with the creation ordinances and the brotherly love of Christians, it is sinful even though the Bible does not explicitly condemn it.

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[1] See Exodus 21:2-11; 20-21; 26-27; Leviticus 25:39-46; Deuteronomy 15:12-18
[2] See Philemon 8-9, 14, 16, and 21

Questions about faith, scripture, theology, or daily Christian living can be submitted via Email. "Faith Questions" is a feature in the monthly newsletter of Indian River Baptist Church. This blog republishes those Questions, along with others not selected for print publication.